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Author TOPIC: Whats the Call
Neal

October 26, 2011
5:25:26 PM

Entry #: 3825163
This happened in my men's slow pitch game, this past weekend. So what is the call?
Runner on first no outs, #4 lefty batter is up and infield and outfield is playing him deep as he hit a home run the last time at bat. First pitch is smacked like a rocket as he pulls the ball and hits the runner on first base. Runner goes down in pain as it hit him in the stomach and he had no time to react. First baseman picks up the ball tags the runner and touches first base.
So whats the call.


Jack

October 26, 2011
5:59:22 PM

Entry #: 3825191
If he was on the base, and no fielder had a chance at the ball, the ball is dead and runners are now on 1st & 2nd. If he was off the base when hit, it's a double play.

Ron C.

October 27, 2011
5:56:17 PM

Entry #: 3825843
As long as he didn't interfere with the batted ball (runner on first), the ball is dead, batter gets a FC, and runner on first is placed on second.

john j

October 30, 2011
9:09:17 AM

Entry #: 3827230
double play. Base is not a haven for the runner.Once ball was hit R1 is forced to second.Fielder was correct tagging R1 first keeping force on for batter runner R2. cALL TIME after play finishes.

Al

October 31, 2011
8:16:00 AM

Entry #: 3827790
Runners on first and second, with no outs.

neal

October 31, 2011
9:05:28 AM

Entry #: 3827816
Al, you are correct. But wish you explained why.

you wouldn't believe the arguement I had. From seeing the different answers I can understand why.


Jack

October 31, 2011
10:08:00 AM

Entry #: 3827851
HEY, NEAL? What about me and Ron C.? Where's Hank on this one? Even if the first baseman was playing right on the line, I still believe that the ball is dead, and that its first and second, no outs.

Jack B.

November 1, 2011
7:10:21 PM

Entry #: 3829029
Can anybody direct me to the rule that covers a base runner being out when hit while on a base even if it did not pass all fielders who could have made a play. Does the runner have to vacate the base when the ball is about to hit them. Are they not protected while on a base from a hit ball.

Hank

November 1, 2011
7:23:31 PM

Entry #: 3829037
Neal - need more info to make correct call.In your judgement, Did the firstbaseman or any other fielder have a chance to make a play on the ball had it not hit R1 on base.

Hank

November 1, 2011
10:34:20 PM

Entry #: 3829160
Neal - as per our phone coversation,you correctly called a dead ball and a hit for runner 2 and placed runner 1 on second base because of being forced to second by runner 2.
ASA rules supplement 44, page 134, states as you noted to me that a runner hit by a fair batted ball when in contact with a base, when the closest defensive player is behind the base,the ball becomes dead and the batter awarded a base hit.This forced runner 1 to second base.
The result of the play is runners on first and second nobody out.
Kudos to Neal!


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