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Author TOPIC: Dropped 3rd strike with runner stealing
Jim Kenendy

April 22, 2013
8:38:37 AM

Entry #: 4049371
Runner (R1) on first base with less than two outs. Batter has a two strike count on her and the next pitched is called strike three, but the catcher drops the ball. Runner (R1) was stealing on the pitch. Does the fact that the runner was stealing constitute first base is unoccupied and makes it necessary for the catcher to either tag the batter/runner or throw down to first or is first ase considered occupied? What should be the proper call by the plate umpire..."strike 3, batter is out" or just "strike 3" and see how the rest of the pay develops?

Neal

April 22, 2013
9:40:37 AM

Entry #: 4049388
The proper technique would be for the plate umpire to state strike 3 batter is out. It does not matter that the runner on 1st was stealing. It is the location of the runner at the time of the pitch.

Jim Kennedy

April 22, 2013
10:29:54 AM

Entry #: 4049413
Thank you Neal! This really helps!

Opa Ump

April 22, 2013
1:21:20 PM

Entry #: 4049493
First base is always considered occupied until the runner touches 2nd base. Until that time, the runner has the right to return to 1st base, the batter has no right to 1st base since there is less than 2 outs and the batter struck out. It is not the responsibility of the Umpire to help the defense know what is going on. Preventive umpiring would be to say batter is out. It can save you trouble, but it is not proper mechanics

Ron C.

April 24, 2013
7:59:17 PM

Entry #: 4050425
First base was occupied at the "time of the pitch," and there were less than two outs. Batter is out. ASA Rule 7-6-N.

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