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Author TOPIC: overthrow question
Neal

June 9, 2014
3:25:02 PM

Entry #: 4130196
Batter lays down a bunt and throw to 1B goes past 1B into right field foul, eventually ending up out of play.
runner was past 2B when it was ruled out of play - because there was only one throw and it wound up out of play, does that mean the BR gets two bases from home the same as if the throw went directly out of play?

it was kind of weird. you had to be there


Mike

June 10, 2014
1:02:59 PM

Entry #: 4130403
batter runner is awarded 2nd base.

Allan

July 14, 2014
11:11:38 PM

Entry #: 4135796
This happened to be several years ago and I got it wrong and I reviewed the rule book again. It is two bases from the time that the ball is released by the fielder. It does not matter that the ball is rolling in play.

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